Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 23:33
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
A Japanese lander crashed on the Moon after losing track of its location - Ars Technica
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What is your craziest/worst Halloween story?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.